100 Safety Officer Quiz Questions & Answers
Q1. What is the primary goal of occupational health and safety programs?
A) Increase production
B) Reduce worker turnover
C) Prevent workplace injuries and illnesses
D) Improve public relations
Answer: C
Explanation: The main goal is to prevent accidents, injuries, and occupational diseases in the workplace.
Q2. What does PPE stand for in safety management?
A) Personal Protective Equipment
B) Protective Personnel Engineering
C) Personal Productivity Equipment
D) Professional Protective Engineering
Answer: A
Explanation: PPE includes gear like helmets, gloves, masks, and goggles to protect workers from hazards.
Q3. The “Hierarchy of Controls” ranks which control as the most effective?
A) Administrative Controls
B) PPE
C) Engineering Controls
D) Elimination
Answer: D
Explanation: Eliminating the hazard entirely is the most effective way to protect workers.
Q4. A “Near Miss” is best described as:
A) An accident with no injuries
B) A minor injury
C) An event that could have caused harm but didn’t
D) An unsafe act
Answer: C
Explanation: Near misses are warning signs that if unaddressed can lead to serious accidents.
Q5. Which color is commonly used for “Danger” signs?
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) Green
D) Red
Answer: D
Explanation: Red indicates immediate danger and is used for emergency stops and fire hazards.
Q6. What type of fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires?
A) Water
B) Foam
C) CO₂
D) Wet chemical
Answer: C
Explanation: CO₂ extinguishers are non-conductive and effective on Class C (electrical) fires.
Q7. Which document identifies hazards and outlines how to control them at the workplace?
A) SDS
B) Work Permit
C) HIRA
D) Evacuation Plan
Answer: C
Explanation: HIRA (Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment) is a tool used for risk management.
Q8. What is the safe oxygen level in a confined space?
A) Less than 16%
B) 21%
C) More than 25%
D) 10%
Answer: B
Explanation: A normal oxygen concentration is about 20.9%. Below 19.5% is considered oxygen-deficient.
Q9. Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) procedures are primarily used to:
A) Monitor noise levels
B) Prevent falls
C) Prevent accidental equipment start-up
D) Control dust exposure
Answer: C
Explanation: LOTO ensures that machinery is safely shut off and not restarted until maintenance is complete.
Q10. What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
A) To provide emergency contacts
B) To describe how to manufacture chemicals
C) To provide information on chemical hazards and safe handling
D) To replace risk assessments
Answer: C
Explanation: SDS outlines chemical properties, hazards, precautions, and first-aid instructions.
Q11. What is the maximum safe noise level over 8 hours according to OSHA?
A) 70 dB
B) 85 dB
C) 90 dB
D) 95 dB
Answer: C
Explanation: OSHA’s permissible exposure limit (PEL) is 90 decibels over an 8-hour time-weighted average.
Q12. What is the minimum height at which fall protection is required in general industry?
A) 2 feet
B) 4 feet
C) 6 feet
D) 8 feet
Answer: B
Explanation: OSHA requires fall protection at 4 feet in general industry and 6 feet in construction.
Q13. The term “Hot Work” refers to:
A) Welding, cutting, grinding, etc.
B) Working in hot weather
C) Operating heated machinery
D) Firefighting
Answer: A
Explanation: Hot work involves sparks or flames that could ignite flammable materials.
Q14. What color is typically associated with caution signs?
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) Red
D) Green
Answer: B
Explanation: Yellow is used to warn of potential physical hazards.
Q15. What is the first step in hazard control?
A) Provide PPE
B) Train workers
C) Identify the hazard
D) Isolate the hazard
Answer: C
Explanation: Before a hazard can be controlled, it must be identified.
Q16. The leading cause of fatalities in the construction industry is:
A) Electrical shock
B) Falls
C) Struck-by incidents
D) Caught-in/between
Answer: B
Explanation: Falls from height are the number one cause of construction fatalities.
Q17. What does an MSDS or SDS contain?
A) Payroll info
B) List of worker responsibilities
C) Chemical hazard information
D) Tool usage instructions
Answer: C
Explanation: SDS includes composition, hazards, handling, storage, and emergency information for chemicals.
Q18. What type of hazard is asbestos exposure?
A) Biological
B) Ergonomic
C) Chemical
D) Physical
Answer: C
Explanation: Asbestos is a chemical hazard that causes serious respiratory diseases.
Q19. Safety signs must be:
A) Written in English only
B) Color-coded and clearly visible
C) Hidden from public view
D) Optional
Answer: B
Explanation: Effective safety signs must be visible and comply with color standards for hazard communication.
Q20. Which class of fire involves flammable metals?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
Answer: D
Explanation: Class D fires involve metals like magnesium, titanium, and require special extinguishers.
Q21. Which regulation covers general industry safety under OSHA?
A) 1910
B) 1926
C) 1904
D) 1935
Answer: A
Explanation: OSHA 1910 covers general industry safety standards.
Q22. Ergonomic hazards are related to:
A) Fire
B) Noise
C) Poor posture and repetitive tasks
D) Machinery
Answer: C
Explanation: Ergonomics involves fitting the job to the worker to prevent musculoskeletal disorders.
Q23. What is the function of a JSA (Job Safety Analysis)?
A) Review salaries
B) Identify hazards before a task
C) Replace toolbox talks
D) Issue work permits
Answer: B
Explanation: JSA breaks down job steps to identify and control hazards before work begins.
Q24. Safety Committees are formed to:
A) Monitor sales performance
B) Plan social events
C) Promote and improve workplace safety
D) Train only new workers
Answer: C
Explanation: Safety committees help identify risks and promote a culture of safety.
Q25. The term “Means of Egress” refers to:
A) Firefighting equipment
B) Emergency exit routes
C) Warning alarms
D) Ladders
Answer: B
Explanation: Means of egress are safe exit paths used during emergencies.
Q26. Which type of hazard does high noise levels in the workplace represent?
A) Biological
B) Physical
C) Chemical
D) Ergonomic
Answer: B
Explanation: Noise is a physical hazard that can cause hearing loss over time.
Q27. A permit-to-work system is used to:
A) Track attendance
B) Assign daily tasks
C) Control high-risk jobs
D) Approve leave applications
Answer: C
Explanation: Permit-to-work systems ensure safety precautions are taken for high-risk tasks like hot work or confined space entry.
Q28. A confined space is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:
A) Limited entry and exit
B) Designed for continuous occupancy
C) Not designed for human habitation
D) May have hazardous atmosphere
Answer: B
Explanation: Confined spaces are not meant for continuous worker occupancy.
Q29. When lifting a heavy object manually, you should:
A) Keep your back straight and bend your knees
B) Bend your waist to reach the load
C) Twist while lifting to save time
D) Pull the object instead of lifting
Answer: A
Explanation: Proper lifting techniques help prevent back injuries.
Q30. The primary responsibility for workplace safety lies with:
A) Government
B) Workers
C) Safety officer
D) Employer
Answer: D
Explanation: Employers are legally responsible for providing a safe work environment.
Q31. Which gas is commonly used in portable fire extinguishers for electrical fires?
A) Argon
B) CO₂
C) Methane
D) Nitrogen
Answer: B
Explanation: CO₂ is used because it is non-conductive and does not leave residue.
Q32. What is a toolbox talk?
A) A toolbox maintenance session
B) A formal board meeting
C) A short safety discussion before work
D) A safety quiz
Answer: C
Explanation: Toolbox talks are brief safety sessions held before starting work to remind workers about hazards.
Q33. What is the color code for a portable water line?
A) Yellow
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Red
Answer: B
Explanation: Blue typically represents potable (drinkable) water in industrial color coding.
Q34. A Class B fire involves:
A) Ordinary combustibles
B) Flammable liquids
C) Electrical equipment
D) Combustible metals
Answer: B
Explanation: Class B fires involve liquids such as gasoline, oil, and paint.
Q35. Safety signs with a green background typically indicate:
A) Prohibition
B) Warning
C) Mandatory action
D) Safe condition
Answer: D
Explanation: Green signs indicate safe conditions like first-aid stations or emergency exits.
Q36. What should be the first step in responding to a fire?
A) Panic and run
B) Try to extinguish it without alerting anyone
C) Raise the alarm and evacuate
D) Call the media
Answer: C
Explanation: Sound the alarm and evacuate others to safety before attempting to fight the fire.
Q37. Which of the following is a proactive safety measure?
A) Accident investigation
B) First aid
C) Emergency response
D) Safety audits
Answer: D
Explanation: Safety audits identify hazards and prevent accidents before they occur.
Q38. The “Golden Rule” of safety is:
A) Use PPE only when told
B) Ignore unsafe acts
C) If it’s not safe, don’t do it
D) Safety is optional
Answer: C
Explanation: Workers must stop and report if the job cannot be done safely.
Q39. What does a risk assessment aim to identify?
A) Training gaps
B) Job satisfaction
C) Hazards and their control measures
D) Productivity
Answer: C
Explanation: Risk assessments determine potential hazards and outline ways to mitigate them.
Q40. Which agency enforces workplace safety laws in the USA?
A) ISO
B) ANSI
C) OSHA
D) WHO
Answer: C
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulates workplace safety in the USA.
Q41. The main cause of slips, trips, and falls in the workplace is:
A) Lack of lighting
B) Proper signage
C) Housekeeping failures
D) PPE use
Answer: C
Explanation: Poor housekeeping leads to obstacles, spills, and clutter that cause slips or trips.
Q42. Which safety equipment is essential for working at heights?
A) Face shield
B) Safety harness
C) Ear plugs
D) Gloves
Answer: B
Explanation: Safety harnesses are required to prevent falls when working at heights.
Q43. Which document is required before entering a confined space?
A) Evacuation plan
B) HIRA
C) Entry permit
D) Rescue plan only
Answer: C
Explanation: Confined space entry requires a permit verifying that safety procedures are in place.
Q44. A good safety culture includes all the following EXCEPT:
A) Open communication
B) Blame culture
C) Continuous improvement
D) Worker involvement
Answer: B
Explanation: A blame-free environment is essential for reporting and improving safety practices.
Q45. Which term refers to physical harm or damage to health?
A) Hazard
B) Risk
C) Injury
D) Incident
Answer: C
Explanation: Injury is the result of exposure to a hazard that causes harm.
Q46. How should compressed gas cylinders be stored?
A) Horizontally on the ground
B) Near electrical panels
C) Upright and secured
D) Lying down near doors
Answer: C
Explanation: Cylinders must be stored upright and secured to prevent tipping or damage.
Q47. What is the best defense against back injuries?
A) Ignoring discomfort
B) Using manual lifting only
C) Ergonomic practices and mechanical aids
D) Lifting heavier loads quickly
Answer: C
Explanation: Ergonomics and mechanical aids like forklifts prevent strain and injury.
Q48. Which of the following is a biological hazard?
A) Loud noise
B) Sharp tools
C) Bloodborne pathogens
D) High voltage
Answer: C
Explanation: Bloodborne pathogens and viruses are examples of biological hazards.
Q49. What must be done after a near-miss incident?
A) Ignore it
B) Continue work
C) Report and investigate
D) Blame the worker
Answer: C
Explanation: Near misses should be treated seriously and investigated to prevent future incidents.
Q50. In safety terminology, a “barrier” refers to:
A) A roadblock
B) A safety control measure
C) An obstacle to productivity
D) A fence only
Answer: B
Explanation: A barrier can be physical or procedural and is used to prevent hazard exposure.
Q51. What does “ALARP” stand for in risk management?
A) All Levels Are Risk Protected
B) As Low As Reasonably Practicable
C) A Level Assessment Risk Plan
D) Always Look At Risk Points
Answer: B
Explanation: ALARP means reducing risk to the lowest level reasonably achievable without excessive cost or effort.
Q52. Which of the following is an example of an administrative control?
A) Safety net
B) Job rotation
C) Machine guarding
D) Chemical substitution
Answer: B
Explanation: Administrative controls include policies like job rotation, training, and shift scheduling to reduce exposure.
Q53. Who is responsible for using PPE correctly at work?
A) Safety Officer
B) Employer only
C) Worker
D) Government
Answer: C
Explanation: Workers are responsible for wearing PPE as trained and instructed.
Q54. What does an “incident” refer to in workplace safety?
A) A fire only
B) Any unplanned event that may cause harm or damage
C) Only fatal accidents
D) Only physical injuries
Answer: B
Explanation: Incidents include accidents, near misses, and other unplanned events.
Q55. A wet floor without signage is an example of what kind of hazard?
A) Mechanical
B) Ergonomic
C) Slip/Trip hazard
D) Chemical
Answer: C
Explanation: Unmarked wet floors are a major cause of slips and falls.
Q56. What is the purpose of a fire drill?
A) Entertain employees
B) Check alarms
C) Practice emergency evacuation procedures
D) Inspect the fire extinguisher
Answer: C
Explanation: Fire drills help ensure workers know how to exit quickly and safely during an emergency.
Q57. What is the main goal of an emergency response plan?
A) Reduce insurance costs
B) Evacuate employees only
C) Protect lives and minimize damage during emergencies
D) Replace risk assessments
Answer: C
Explanation: Emergency response plans coordinate actions during events like fires, spills, and natural disasters.
Q58. Which hazard classification would “virus exposure” fall under?
A) Mechanical
B) Chemical
C) Biological
D) Physical
Answer: C
Explanation: Viruses, bacteria, and fungi are all biological hazards.
Q59. Which safety principle promotes the idea of reporting unsafe acts without fear?
A) Zero Tolerance
B) No Blame Culture
C) Behavioral Punishment
D) Strict Supervision
Answer: B
Explanation: A no-blame culture encourages open communication and timely reporting of hazards.
Q60. What is the main purpose of a safety induction for new employees?
A) Teach company rules
B) Explain salary and benefits
C) Introduce safety procedures, hazards, and emergency protocols
D) Promote productivity
Answer: C
Explanation: Induction ensures new employees understand workplace hazards and safety responsibilities.
Q61. How often should fire extinguishers typically be inspected?
A) Weekly
B) Every 3 years
C) Monthly
D) Every 10 years
Answer: C
Explanation: Fire extinguishers should be inspected monthly to ensure proper condition and placement.
Q62. An “unsafe act” can be described as:
A) A random event
B) A failure of equipment
C) An action by a worker that increases risk
D) A natural disaster
Answer: C
Explanation: Unsafe acts include bypassing safety devices, not using PPE, or violating procedures.
Q63. The term “residual risk” refers to:
A) All risks present before any control
B) Risk after all controls are applied
C) Unidentified risk
D) Imaginary risk
Answer: B
Explanation: Residual risk is the remaining risk after implementing all feasible controls.
Q64. What is the primary cause of hand injuries in the workplace?
A) Poor lighting
B) Improper glove use
C) Equipment failure
D) Not using proper guarding
Answer: D
Explanation: Many hand injuries occur when machinery lacks proper guards or when workers bypass them.
Q65. What is the most suitable fire extinguisher for a paper fire?
A) CO₂
B) Foam
C) Water
D) DCP
Answer: C
Explanation: Water extinguishers are ideal for Class A fires involving paper, wood, and cloth.
Q66. What is “permit to work”?
A) A routine job order
B) A license to operate machinery
C) A written document authorizing specific high-risk work
D) An employment letter
Answer: C
Explanation: Permit-to-work systems control hazardous work such as hot work, confined space, or electrical maintenance.
Q67. When should you use a safety harness?
A) When lifting loads
B) While working in office
C) When working at height
D) During fire drills
Answer: C
Explanation: A safety harness is essential for fall protection when working at elevated positions.
Q68. Which gas is most commonly associated with confined space deaths?
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Methane
D) Hydrogen Sulfide (H₂S)
Answer: D
Explanation: H₂S is toxic and deadly in small concentrations, often present in confined spaces.
Q69. The “Swiss Cheese Model” is used to explain:
A) Food safety
B) Hierarchy of controls
C) Layers of defenses in accident causation
D) Ladder safety
Answer: C
Explanation: It illustrates how multiple layers of defense (with holes) can fail, leading to accidents.
Q70. Which of the following is a reactive safety measure?
A) Toolbox talk
B) Incident investigation
C) Job hazard analysis
D) Risk assessment
Answer: B
Explanation: Incident investigation occurs after an event to understand root causes and prevent recurrence.
Q71. Which of the following helps prevent electrical shock?
A) Wooden shoes
B) PPE
C) Lockout/Tagout
D) Safety belt
Answer: C
Explanation: LOTO ensures electrical energy sources are de-energized before maintenance, preventing shock.
Q72. What does a blue safety sign typically indicate?
A) Prohibition
B) Mandatory action
C) Warning
D) Danger
Answer: B
Explanation: Blue signs are mandatory signs and indicate required actions like “Wear helmet”.
Q73. What should be done first if someone receives an electric shock?
A) Pull them away with bare hands
B) Pour water on them
C) Disconnect the power source
D) Shake them
Answer: C
Explanation: Always remove the power source before attempting to help someone who is electrocuted.
Q74. What is the main objective of incident investigation?
A) Assign blame
B) Satisfy management
C) Find root causes and prevent recurrence
D) Write reports
Answer: C
Explanation: The goal is to improve safety by learning from the incident and avoiding future events.
Q75. Which of the following is NOT a component of the hierarchy of control?
A) Elimination
B) Engineering control
C) Legislation
D) PPE
Answer: C
Explanation: Legislation is not part of the hierarchy. The hierarchy includes: Elimination, Substitution, Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls, and PPE.
Q76. What is the primary purpose of a “safety audit”?
A) Increase production
B) Identify safety weaknesses and ensure compliance
C) Reward best employee
D) Reduce manpower
Answer: B
Explanation: Safety audits assess systems and practices to ensure compliance and highlight areas for improvement.
Q77. Which of the following is considered a physical hazard?
A) Virus
B) Vibration
C) Benzene
D) Poor posture
Answer: B
Explanation: Vibration is a physical hazard that can cause hand-arm vibration syndrome (HAVS) or fatigue.
Q78. What does “first aid” mean?
A) Final medical treatment
B) Self-treatment
C) Emergency care given immediately
D) Delayed care after a report
Answer: C
Explanation: First aid is the immediate assistance provided to a person suffering from an injury or illness until full medical treatment is available.
Q79. A scaffolding platform should be inspected:
A) Once a month
B) After completion only
C) Before use and periodically
D) Only if someone complains
Answer: C
Explanation: Regular inspections help identify unsafe conditions and prevent falls or structural failure.
Q80. What is the ideal lighting level for general workplace tasks (in lux)?
A) 20
B) 50
C) 300
D) 1000
Answer: C
Explanation: For most tasks in industrial or office environments, 300 lux is suitable for general visibility and focus.
Q81. In a color-coded pipeline, which color usually represents steam?
A) Red
B) Yellow
C) Silver/Gray
D) Green
Answer: C
Explanation: Silver or gray is typically used to indicate steam in industrial pipe markings.
Q82. What does “TWA” stand for in occupational exposure limits?
A) Total Worker Assessment
B) Time Weighted Average
C) Temperature Warning Alert
D) Temporary Work Arrangement
Answer: B
Explanation: TWA is the average exposure to a contaminant over a specific period (usually 8 hours).
Q83. What is the purpose of a guardrail system?
A) Prevent noise exposure
B) Protect from electrical hazards
C) Prevent falls from heights
D) Block roadways
Answer: C
Explanation: Guardrails are fall prevention systems installed at the edges of elevated surfaces.
Q84. What type of extinguisher is used for Class K fires (kitchen/oil fires)?
A) Water
B) CO₂
C) Wet Chemical
D) Foam
Answer: C
Explanation: Wet chemical extinguishers are designed for fires involving cooking oils and fats.
Q85. What is an “unsafe condition”?
A) A behavior that violates rules
B) A condition in the workplace that can cause harm
C) A natural hazard
D) The same as a risk
Answer: B
Explanation: Examples include broken tools, unguarded machinery, and poor lighting.
Q86. What is the minimum safe clearance between scaffolds and power lines (up to 50kV)?
A) 1 meter
B) 5 feet (1.5 meters)
C) 10 feet (3 meters)
D) 2 feet (0.6 meters)
Answer: C
Explanation: OSHA recommends maintaining at least 10 feet clearance to avoid electrical hazards.
Q87. A fire triangle consists of:
A) Smoke, oxygen, wood
B) Fuel, oxygen, heat
C) Fire, water, extinguisher
D) Smoke, flame, CO₂
Answer: B
Explanation: Removing any of the three elements (heat, fuel, oxygen) prevents or extinguishes fire.
Q88. Which of the following helps reduce ergonomic hazards?
A) Machine guarding
B) Proper ventilation
C) Adjustable workstations
D) Using PPE
Answer: C
Explanation: Ergonomics focuses on designing jobs to fit workers, reducing strain and injury.
Q89. Why is safety signage important?
A) To decorate the site
B) To confuse outsiders
C) To communicate hazards and required actions
D) To replace training
Answer: C
Explanation: Signs quickly convey vital information about hazards and safety requirements.
Q90. What is the safe practice when using a ladder?
A) Stand on the top rung
B) Overreach to one side
C) Maintain 3 points of contact
D) Lean it against an unstable surface
Answer: C
Explanation: Always keep two hands and one foot or two feet and one hand on the ladder.
Q91. What is the role of a “Safety Data Sheet” (SDS)?
A) Notify HR about absence
B) List worker assignments
C) Describe chemical hazards and safety precautions
D) Control material costs
Answer: C
Explanation: SDS provides detailed safety info for chemicals used in the workplace.
Q92. The leading cause of hand tool injuries is:
A) Lack of storage
B) Tools made of steel
C) Improper use of tools
D) Overuse of gloves
Answer: C
Explanation: Misusing hand tools (e.g., using a screwdriver as a chisel) often leads to injury.
Q93. Safety helmets should be replaced if:
A) The strap is dirty
B) It has been dropped from height or shows signs of damage
C) It is more than a week old
D) Color fades
Answer: B
Explanation: Helmets must be replaced after impact or visible damage to ensure protection.
Q94. Which of the following activities requires a hot work permit?
A) Digging
B) Welding
C) Climbing
D) Painting
Answer: B
Explanation: Welding involves sparks and fire risk; thus, a hot work permit is mandatory.
Q95. Who should conduct a Job Safety Analysis (JSA)?
A) Office assistant
B) Any worker
C) Trained personnel familiar with the job
D) Accountant
Answer: C
Explanation: A competent person must evaluate hazards and recommend controls.
Q96. What is the primary role of a Safety Officer?
A) Improve profits
B) Supervise workers
C) Enforce safety standards and reduce risks
D) Order materials
Answer: C
Explanation: Safety Officers are responsible for identifying hazards and ensuring compliance with safety regulations.
Q97. The term “MSDS” has now been replaced with:
A) SOS
B) SDS
C) RSS
D) MDR
Answer: B
Explanation: “SDS” or Safety Data Sheet is the globally harmonized format for hazard communication.
Q98. A respirator is used when:
A) Noise levels are high
B) There is a risk of falling
C) Airborne contaminants are present
D) Working on heights
Answer: C
Explanation: Respirators protect against dust, fumes, gases, and other harmful airborne substances.
Q99. What is the safe way to store flammable liquids?
A) Open shelf in the office
B) Under sunlight
C) In approved flameproof containers away from ignition sources
D) In any container
Answer: C
Explanation: Proper storage reduces risk of fire and explosion.
Q100. What is the first thing to check before using any equipment?
A) Color
B) Owner
C) Inspection tag or condition
D) Manufacturer country
Answer: C
Explanation: Equipment must be inspected and confirmed to be in safe working condition before use.
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